I'm sure I should know this already (perhaps it has already been explained). But, Does anyone know why Robert Jewett, in his commentary on Romans (
Hermeneia; Minneapolis: Fortress Press, 2007), uses feminine English pronouns in his translation of masculine Greek pronouns that refer to God? For example, he offers the following translation of Rom. 9.19: "You will say to me then, 'Why then does he still find fault? For who has resisted
her design?'" (Jewett,
Romans, 587) The Greek text behind the Jewett's translation, "who has resisted her design," is τῷ βουλήματι
αὐτοῦ τίς ἀνθέστηκεν; This isn't the only time Jewett does this, but it is the first time I've noticed him doing it. Doe anyone know whether he offers any justification for this way of rendering the text?
3 comments:
I just started reading some of Jewett's work this past year (dealing with 1 Thessalonians' closing). Here is my question, does (s)he do this consistently or just in Romans?
On another note, looking at my schedule, I may have my first Rodriguez class this fall. Should be a blast!
And yes, the (s)he was a joke! :D
Nope. Not this fall. Two words: Sab. Batical.
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